RTI data show 192 active fire locations recorded so far in 2026, against 4,753 in 2021; Haryana has utilised Rs 933.96 crore of the funds released over 9 years

The Tribune: Chandigarh: Tuesday, 10 November 2026.
Haryana farm fires hit lowest level since 2021 as Centre releases Rs 1,220 crore for stubble management

The Centre has released Rs 1,220.42 crore to Haryana over the past nine years under the Crop Residue Management (CRM) scheme to curb stubble burning. Of this, Rs 933.96 crore has been utilised by the state authorities so far, according to information obtained under the RTI Act from the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
The sustained efforts appear to have yielded results, with farm fires recording their lowest number since 2021. A comparison of Active Fire Locations (AFLs) during the paddy harvesting season, as of November 9, shows that Haryana recorded just 192 such locations in 2026. This is the lowest figure for the corresponding period in the past six years.
The state had recorded 333 AFLs in 2025, 959 in 2024, 1,676 in 2023, 2,693 in 2022 and 4,753 in 2021.
The figures assume significance as stubble burning is considered a major contributor to seasonal air pollution in the National Capital Region. The CRM scheme aims to encourage farmers to manage paddy residue through in-situ and ex-situ methods instead of burning it in their fields.
Year-wise figures furnished by the Centre show that Rs 137.84 crore was released in 2018-19, Rs 192.06 crore in 2019-20, Rs 170 crore in 2020-21, Rs 193.35 crore in 2021-22 and Rs 223.46 crore in 2022-23.
The releases subsequently declined to Rs 90 crore in 2023-24, Rs 75 crore in 2024-25 and Rs 90 crore in 2025-26. Another Rs 48.71 crore was released during 2026-27 so far, taking the total allocation over the nine-year period to Rs 1,220.42 crore.
The utilisation figures for the available years show that Haryana spent Rs 106.58 crore in 2018-19, Rs 127.16 crore in 2019-20, Rs 208.89 crore in 2020-21, Rs 178.33 crore in 2021-22 and Rs 86.84 crore in 2022-23.
According to the RTI response, the state reported nil utilisation in 2023-24, followed by expenditure of Rs 226 crore in 2024-25 and just Rs 16 lakh in 2025-26. The cumulative utilisation stood at Rs 933.96 crore.
The RTI response also provides year-wise figures for Custom Hiring Centres (CHCs), which facilitate farmers’ access to agricultural machinery for crop residue management.
The state had 10,627 such centres in 2018-19, 14,078 in 2019-20, 29,020 in 2020-21, 19,059 in 2021-22, 7,641 in 2022-23, 10,620 in 2023-24, 9,844 in 2024-25 and 9,885 in 2025-26. The cumulative figure stands at 1,10,774 CHCs.
Meanwhile, district-wise active fire location data also point to a considerable decline in farm fires over the past six years. The latest figures show a nearly 42 per cent decline compared with the corresponding period in 2025 and a nearly 96 per cent drop compared with 2021.

"Recent RTI replies reveal alarming PG doctor resignations across AIIMS and JIPMER, citing toxic culture, lack of support, and brutal 36-hour shifts."

OC Academy: New Delhi: Tuesday, 10 November 2026.

Recent disclosures under the Right to Information Act highlight a worrying surge in PG doctor resignations across India's top medical colleges. Specifically, junior resident doctors are actively quitting residency seats at institutes like AIIMS and JIPMER. Consequently, these departures expose severe structural flaws within prestigious postgraduate medical training programs.
Data Reveals Extent of PG Doctor Resignations
Official RTI data reveals widespread resignations across multiple premier campuses. For instance, AIIMS Delhi recorded 34 junior resident departures during 2025. Although this marks a drop from 60 exits in 2024, total student intake also dropped from 324 to 267. Moreover, anaesthesiology suffered the heaviest attrition with seven departures, while ophthalmology lost six trainees. Surgery and pathology each lost three residents during the same period.
Furthermore, JIPMER Puducherry witnessed 44 resident resignations across its January and July batches in 2025. This figure reflects a 27% decline compared to 60 exits in 2024. Nevertheless, exits persisted across vital departments such as emergency medicine, orthopaedics, and general surgery. In addition, new AIIMS institutes faced comparable retention struggles. AIIMS Rishikesh lost 30 postgraduate doctors in 2025. Meanwhile, AIIMS Raipur and AIIMS Kalyani recorded 19 and 15 departures respectively.
Underlying Causes Driving Resident Physician Exits
Young physicians earn these coveted seats after clearing intense national examinations. Therefore, their premature exit underscores severe systemic distress. The United Doctors Front highlighted several recurring grievances reported by trainees. Residents frequently work grueling shifts extending past 36 continuous hours without adequate rest. In addition, doctors face toxic workplace hierarchies and routine harassment from senior faculty.
Consequently, persistent sleep deprivation degrades cognitive function and harms clinical judgment. Many resident doctors also endure severe burnout and emotional isolation. Unfortunately, medical institutes fail to maintain adequate psychological support infrastructure. For example, AIIMS Delhi stated that it maintains no compiled records on resident psychiatric counselling. Similarly, AIIMS Raipur reported zero resident counselling sessions, while AIIMS Kalyani withheld relevant mental health data. As a result, the United Doctors Front filed a public interest litigation in the Supreme Court to demand enforceable working-hour limits.
Regulatory Reforms and Institutional Accountability
Healthcare administrators must urgently address the structural gaps that drive doctors away. First, regulatory authorities must strictly cap continuous duty hours. Prolonged duty cycles compromise patient safety and violate basic resident welfare. Furthermore, national bodies must mandate transparent grievance redressal committees independent of local department heads.
Additionally, healthcare institutions must actively monitor trainee mental health. Deans must provide confidential psychological counseling and destigmatize psychiatric care among medical professionals. Without meaningful institutional accountability, top hospitals will continue to lose brilliant clinicians. Protecting resident well-being ultimately ensures better healthcare delivery across the entire medical ecosystem.
Frequently Asked Questions
Q1: Why are postgraduate doctors quitting premier institutions like AIIMS?
Residents cite excessive shifts exceeding 36 hours, toxic work culture, harassment, and inadequate mental health support.
Q2: Did AIIMS Delhi record a decrease in resident resignations in 2025?
Yes, AIIMS Delhi saw 34 resignations in 2025 compared to 60 in 2024. However, total resident admissions also fell from 324 to 267.
Q3: What legal actions are medical associations taking regarding resident working hours?
The United Doctors Front filed a Supreme Court petition to enforce duty hour limits and establish independent grievance cells.
References:

1. Postgraduate doctors quit premier medical institutes, shows RTI reply - ETHealthworld
2. 477 PG medicos quit courses midway at AIIMS, JIPMER in last 3 years - Medical Dialogues
3. 186 PG students quit AIIMS campuses in 2025: RTI info - The Tribune

Right to Information: A vital tool for empowering people: CIC chief

BSS: Dhaka: Tuesday, 10 November 2026.
Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) Prof Dr Nahrin Islam Khan today said right to information (RTI) is a fundamental human right and it is considered as a vital tool for the empowerment of the people.

Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) Prof Dr Nahrin Islam Khan

She made the remarks during a session titled "Right to Information Act, 2009," held as part of a foundational training course for 9th-grade officials of the city corporations at the National Institute of Local Government (NILG) here.
During the session, the CIC discussed the core provisions of the "Right to Information Act, 2009," the process for obtaining information, the roles of designated officers responsible for providing information and the duties and responsibilities of relevant institutions in implementing the law.
The CIC chief said the effective implementation of the "Right to Information Act, 2009" is crucial for ensuring transparency and accountability in government activities and for establishing good governance.
She urged the government officials to work with sincerity, a sense of responsibility and a positive attitude to ensure the public's right to information.
Addressing the trainees, the CIC chief expressed her hope that, following this training, they would become more aware of the Right to Information Act. She encouraged them to ensure the proper application of the act within their respective workplaces, thereby making public services more transparent, accountable and citizen-friendly.
Thirty 9th-grade officials from city corporations participated in this foundational training programme on the Right to Information Act.

CIC flags lapses, asks Animal Husbandry Ministry to fix Animal Welfare Board’s RTI listing

The Print: New Delhi: Tuesday, 10 November 2026.
The Central Information Commission (CIC) has directed the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying to pursue the correction of the Animal Welfare Board of India’s (AWBI) administrative details on the online RTI portal and designate information officers for its Animal Welfare Division, flagging shortcomings in the body’s mandatory disclosures under the transparency law.

The directions came while disposing of complaints filed by applicant Naresh Kadyan against the AWBI, which functions under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
Information Commissioner Sanjeev Kumar Jindal noted that the complainant’s primary grievance concerned the Board’s alleged failure to comply with the proactive disclosure requirements under Section 4 of the Right to Information Act.
The complainant submitted that the information uploaded on the Board’s website was outdated and that its administrative control continued to be incorrectly reflected under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change on the online RTI portal.
The CIC also took note of the AWBI’s submission that steps were being taken to rectify the issue.
“The commission is of the view that shortcoming in the disclosure by the public authority is against the mandate of Sections 4(1)(a) and 4(1)(b) of the RTI Act, 2005, which cast a statutory obligation upon public authorities to maintain records properly and to ensure accurate and timely dissemination of information,” the order said.
The commission directed the Secretary and First Appellate Authority of AWBI to “undertake a comprehensive review of the board’s website and the records uploaded thereon” and ensure that “complete, accurate, and up-to-date proactive disclosures” mandated under Section 4 are published “in letter and spirit”.
It also directed the Joint Secretary (Animal Welfare Board) in the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying to “proactively pursue” the matter with the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) for the formal alignment of AWBI as a public authority under the department on the online RTI portal.
Further, the department was directed to designate Central Public Information Officers (CPIOs) and First Appellate Authorities (FAAs) for its Animal Welfare Division in accordance with Section 5 of the RTI Act.
The order noted that the complainant had also raised the issue of the department not having designated a CPIO for the Animal Welfare Division, making it difficult for citizens to file RTI applications.
The commission observed that the AWBI had written to the DoPT on February 19, 2025, and May 2, 2026, but the necessary correction on the online RTI portal was yet to be effected. PTI MHS KSI
(This report is auto-generated from PTI news service. ThePrint holds no responsibility for its content.)

BDA spends Rs 9.5 crore on Nadaprabhu Kempegowda event, road launch : Naveen Menezes

Deccan Herald: Bengaluru: Monday, 9^th November 2026.
The celebrations, held at Nadaprabhu Kempegowda Layout, were attended by Chief Minister DK Shivakumar and several other dignitaries.

A view of Bangalore Development Authority (BDA) head office in Bengaluru.Credit: DH Photo

The Bangalore Development Authority (BDA) spent Rs 9.5 crore on three events held on June 27 to mark Nadaprabhu Kempegowda’s 517th birth anniversary, inaugurate SM Krishna Road and plant 15 lakh saplings. Of this, Rs 4 crore went towards arrangements for the main event alone.
Expenditure details obtained under the Right to Information (RTI) Act by BM Shivakumar, president of the Jayaprakash Narayana Vichara Vedike, show that the authority spent Rs 60 lakh on illuminating the 10.7-km Major Arterial Road (MAR) and Rs 49.6 lakh on BMTC buses to ferry participants.
The celebrations, held at Nadaprabhu Kempegowda Layout, were attended by Chief Minister DK Shivakumar and several other dignitaries. The occasion also marked the inauguration of the 10-lane SM Krishna Road, connecting Magadi and Mysuru roads in West Bengaluru.
The biggest expenditure was Rs 4 crore on arrangements for the main event, including the stage, breakfast and catering, sound systems, LED screens, seating, green rooms, barricading, mobile toilets and German tents. The BDA also spent Rs 3 lakh on invitation cards and Rs 4 lakh on mobile towers to improve network connectivity at the venue.
Ahead of the celebrations, the Urban Development Department (UDD) granted an exemption under Section 4(G) of the Karnataka Transparency in Public Procurements (KTPP) Act, allowing the BDA to award works without following the standard competitive bidding process. The approval was issued on June 27.
Questioning the need for such elaborate arrangements, activist Shivakumar termed the expenditure unnecessary. “In the past, the BDA has built much longer roads, including the Outer Ring Road. Why should so much money be spent merely to inaugurate a road? This is not a political programme. The money should have been spent on development works instead,” he said.
BDA cites three events
BDA officials said the Rs 9.5-crore expenditure covered three events — Kempegowda Jayanthi celebrations, inauguration of the Major Arterial Road (MAR) and the planting of 15 lakh saplings.
"We have spent approximately Rs 3 crore per event. A total of 60,000 people attended these functions," an official said.
Rs 2.61 crore for 15 lakh saplings
Of the total Rs 9.5 crore, Rs 2.61 crore was spent on planting 15 lakh saplings across three BDA layouts — Shivaram Karanth Layout, Nadaprabhu Kempegowda Layout and Banashankari 6th Stage.
The BDA also secured a Guinness World Record for planting 15 lakh native saplings across 200 acres in 12 hours.

1,886 queries, 97 petitions: Dear RTI, is my ex dating now? : K Balasubramanian

DT Next: Chennai: Monday, 9^th November 2026.
The Tamil Nadu Information Commission has warned the youth, A Santhosh, against misusing the law, and let him off only after he agreed to seek legal remedy through a court

Does my estranged lover have someone else? Has she married? Can you send me her latest photographs? Where is she working now?
These are not late-night WhatsApp messages between friends. They are a sample of the 1,886 questions a Villupuram youth fired off in 97 petitions under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, over several months.
Not to be amused, the Tamil Nadu Information Commission has warned the youth, A Santhosh, against misusing the law, and let him off only after he agreed to seek legal remedy through a court.
Following an inquiry into appeals filed by Santhosh, Information Commissioner VPR Ilamparithi cautioned the youth against misusing the Act and warned that continued filing of such petitions could lead to a one-year restriction on submitting RTI applications. He also said Santhosh could be referred to the District Health Department for counselling.
The petitions were addressed to the Additional Superintendent of Police (SP), Cuddalore, who is also the district police's Public Information Officer (PIO), over the past eight months.
Santhosh had reportedly been in a relationship with her during their college days. When she ended it, he allegedly kept harassing her through electronic devices, then turned to the RTI Act.
The PIO rejected the petitions, and Santhosh took his case to the Commission. Hearing the appeal, Information Commissioner VPR Ilamparithi said the RTI Act was meant to empower the poor and ensure transparency and corruption-free administration. Using it to demand a woman's photograph and private details, he said, was condemnable.
He also voiced concern that public information officers were spending a substantial part of their working hours answering such queries.

Haryana Tightens RTI Appeal Deadlines, Chief Secretary Anurag Rastogi Directs Officers to Pass Reasoned Orders

Indian Masterminds: Haryana: Sunday, 8^th November 2026.
Haryana Chief Secretary Anurag Rastogi has directed officials to dispose of RTI first appeals within the prescribed timeframe and ensure that orders clearly explain the reasons behind their decisions.

The Haryana government has directed departments and public authorities to ensure timely disposal of first appeals filed under the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, while requiring appellate authorities to issue clear and reasoned decisions.
Chief Secretary Anurag Rastogi, a 1990-batch IAS officer of the Haryana cadre, has instructed all concerned officials to comply with the statutory timelines for deciding first appeals. He has also emphasised that State Public Information Officers (SPIOs) must provide information that can legally be disclosed under the Act without unnecessary delay.
The directions follow concerns raised by the Haryana State Information Commission over delays in deciding first appeals and the issuance of orders without adequate reasoning.
Chief Secretary Emphasises Timely Disposal and Speaking Orders
In a communication issued by the Chief Secretary, officials have been reminded of their obligations under Section 19(6) of the RTI Act.
The provision requires first appellate authorities to decide appeals within the prescribed period. While issuing orders, authorities must also consider the key points and grounds raised by the appellants.
The government has specifically directed appellate authorities to:

• Dispose of first appeals within the statutory timeframe.
• Examine the principal grounds and submissions raised by appellants.
• Record clear and logical reasons while passing orders.
• Ensure that decisions adequately explain the basis for accepting or rejecting an appeal.
• Direct SPIOs to provide legally disclosable information without unnecessary delay.

These instructions are intended to ensure that first appeals are decided in accordance with the provisions of the RTI Act.
Haryana State Information Commission Flags Delays
The latest directions came after the Haryana State Information Commission expressed concern over delays in the disposal of first appeals by various departments and public authorities.
The Commission also pointed to instances of orders being passed without sufficient reasons.
It subsequently requested administrative departments, heads of departments and other authorities to issue appropriate instructions to ensure compliance with the RTI framework.
Following this, the state government issued directions to the concerned officials, reiterating the need for timely decisions and reasoned orders.
Pending RTI Cases Also Came Under Discussion
The issue of pending cases before the Haryana State Information Commission had also come up during a recent press conference.
Journalists had asked the Commission about the number of pending cases. Chief Information Commissioner TVSN Prasad had said that the information would be provided later.
The latest government communication focuses on improving compliance with the existing provisions governing first appeals, particularly the timelines for disposal and the requirement to provide reasons in appellate decisions.

Data protection law faces scrutiny: The key concerns explained : By Abhishek Mishra

Times of India: Article: Sunday, 8^th November 2026.
India's new data protection framework was introduced with a clear objective: to give citizens greater control over their personal information and make organisations accountable for how they collect, store and use it. But as the government moves towards implementing the law, a growing debate has emerged over whether safeguards designed to protect individual privacy could also affect investigative journalism, access to public records and government accountability.

The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, is facing a legal challenge from the Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA), which represents 21 news organisations. The association has approached the Supreme Court, arguing that several provisions of the law and its accompanying rules could restrict journalistic activities, compromise confidential sources and undermine the Right to Information (RTI) framework.
The Supreme Court issued notice to the Centre on October 27 and listed the matter for further hearing on November 17. The government, meanwhile, has indicated that it is open to amending the rules or even the law itself if necessary to address concerns over press freedom.
The challenge has brought an important question into focus: Where should the line be drawn between an individual's right to privacy and the public's right to know? While one view holds that constitutional protections and judicial scrutiny can address competing interests, another argues that journalism needs explicit statutory safeguards.
What is the DPDP Act and why was it introduced?
Parliament passed the Digital Personal Data Protection Act in August 2023, establishing a legal framework to regulate the processing of digital personal information.
The legislation came against the backdrop of India's rapidly expanding digital economy, where personal information has become central to everyday activities. Banking transactions, online shopping, digital payments, social media accounts, healthcare services and government welfare schemes all involve the collection and processing of personal data.
While this has made services more accessible, it has also increased the risks of data breaches, identity theft, unauthorised sharing and misuse of personal information.
The need for a comprehensive data protection framework gained importance after the Supreme Court, in its landmark 2017 Puttaswamy judgment, recognised privacy as a fundamental right under the Constitution.
The DPDP Act seeks to establish obligations for organisations handling personal data and provide individuals with rights over how their information is processed.
The ministry of electronics and information technology (MeitY) notified the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025, on November 14, 2025, following consultations with stakeholders.
According to a Press Information Bureau (PIB) backgrounder published on November 17, 2025, the government received 6,915 inputs during the consultation process. These included suggestions from startups, micro, small and medium enterprises, industry bodies, civil society organisations, government departments and citizens.
The government described the framework as citizen-centric, with an emphasis on consent, transparency, accountability and responsible use of digital personal information.
What does the law provide?
The Act revolves around two key categories: Data Fiduciaries and Data Principals.
A Data Fiduciary is an organisation or individual that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data. This could include a bank collecting customer details, an e-commerce platform storing purchase histories or a company maintaining employee records.
A Data Principal is the individual to whom the personal information belongs.
The legislation requires Data Fiduciaries to obtain consent before processing personal data, except in specified circumstances where processing is permitted under the law. Such consent must be free, specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous.
Individuals must also be informed about the purpose for which their information is being collected and how it will be used.
The Act provides Data Principals with several rights, including the right to access information about the processing of their personal data, seek correction and erasure, withdraw consent and raise grievances. They can also nominate another person to exercise their rights in certain circumstances.
Organisations are required to implement reasonable security safeguards to protect personal information. In case of a data breach, they must notify the Data Protection Board of India and affected individuals in accordance with the prescribed framework.
The legislation also provides additional safeguards for children's data. Organisations are generally required to obtain verifiable parental consent before processing the personal data of children below 18 years. The law also restricts tracking, behavioural monitoring and targeted advertising directed at children, subject to specified exemptions.
The framework provides for the Data Protection Board of India, which is responsible for examining complaints, conducting inquiries and determining penalties for non-compliance.
The financial consequences can be significant. Under the Act, failure to take reasonable security safeguards to prevent a personal data breach can attract a penalty of up to Rs 250 crore. Violations relating to breach notifications and obligations concerning children's data can attract penalties of up to Rs 200 crore.
Why are news publishers challenging the law?
The most prominent concern raised by the DNPA is the absence of a specific exemption for journalistic activities.
The association argues that the law does not adequately distinguish between the commercial processing of personal information and its use for reporting matters of public interest.
Journalists frequently rely on personal information while investigating allegations involving public officials, companies, financial transactions and government decisions. Such investigations may require access to records and information without informing the person concerned in advance.
For instance, a journalist investigating alleged irregularities in the assets of a public official may need to examine financial records, property details and business associations. Seeking consent from the individual before collecting or using such information could alert the subject to the investigation and potentially compromise the reporting process.
Similarly, time-sensitive reporting and live television coverage often involve the use of information about individuals without obtaining prior permission.
The DNPA has argued that the notice, consent and data-erasure requirements under the DPDP framework could make such activities difficult.
In its petition, the association has challenged Sections 7, 17(2), 18, 19, 27, 29, 36, 37 and 44(3) of the Act, along with Rules 16, 17 and 23 of the DPDP Rules.
It has argued that the provisions fail to recognise journalistic activity as a distinct category deserving protection under the Constitution and could affect journalists, ground reporters, whistleblowers, citizen journalists and RTI activists.
The association has also raised concerns over the possibility of individuals withdrawing consent and seeking erasure of their personal information. It fears that this could be used to pressure news organisations into removing reports or altering digital archives, even when the information is relevant to public interest.
The challenge is not about denying individuals the right to privacy. Rather, it concerns whether the law provides sufficient safeguards for reporting that requires the collection and publication of personal information in the public interest.
What do legal experts say about press freedom?
The debate has produced differing assessments of whether journalism needs a separate exemption under the legislation.
Advocate Adhitya Srinivasan believes the constitutional protection enjoyed by the press and the nature of the legislation could allow competing interests to be resolved through judicial scrutiny.
"Freedom of press is so well-entrenched in our Constitution, so I really don't think that the DPDP Act is going to materially impair investigative journalism," Srinivasan said.
He argued that Parliament had deliberately chosen a framework that articulates core principles without becoming overly prescriptive, leaving courts to undertake a balancing exercise when competing rights come into conflict.
"This is hardly unusual, and far from being problematic, it is just a deliberate choice that Parliament has made," he said.
Srinivasan also pointed out that the legislation was not necessarily intended to restrict reporting. In his assessment, its objective could instead be to discourage practices such as doxxing and voyeurism.
On the question of whether journalism requires an explicit exemption, he said: "I don't think journalism needs an explicit exemption under the DPDP Act, but I suppose it wouldn't hurt."
Advocate Mayank Arora, however, takes a more cautionary view, arguing that the absence of an express exemption could create significant difficulties for public-interest reporting.
"I think yes, there is a strong likelihood that The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, could affect investigative journalism because it does not expressly exempt public-interest reporting from its consent requirements," Arora said.
He argued that journalists investigating allegations involving public officials may need to examine financial records, ownership details and private communications, and seeking consent from the individuals concerned could defeat the purpose of an investigation.
Arora also warned that the law could produce a chilling effect, with journalists avoiding investigations into powerful individuals because of potential complaints, litigation costs and regulatory uncertainty.
"The real danger here is not necessarily direct censorship, but a chilling effect on journalists," he said.
He maintained that an explicit exemption would provide stronger protection for legitimate investigative reporting while preserving safeguards against misuse of personal information.
RTI amendment: Why is Section 44(3) under scrutiny?
Another major point of contention is Section 44(3) of the DPDP Act, which amends Section 8(1)(j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005.
The earlier provision allowed public authorities to withhold personal information if it had no relationship to public activity or interest, or if its disclosure would cause an unwarranted invasion of privacy. However, it also allowed disclosure where a larger public interest justified making the information available.
The amendment changes the wording of the exemption to cover information relating to personal information.
Critics argue that the revised provision removes the earlier balancing mechanism between privacy and public interest, potentially making it more difficult for citizens to access information held by public authorities.
The implications could extend to information concerning public officials, government decisions and the functioning of public institutions.
For example, a journalist or an RTI applicant seeking information about the assets or official dealings of a public servant may encounter questions over whether the information falls within the personal information exemption.
The central concern is that information could be withheld even when its disclosure has a legitimate bearing on public accountability.
The government, however, has defended the amendment.
In a PIB release issued on August 20, 2025, MeitY said the DPDP Act sought to recognise both an individual's right to protect personal information and the need to process such information for lawful purposes.
The ministry maintained that the amendment to the RTI Act was intended to balance the right to privacy with the right to information.
Srinivasan believes concerns over the amendment may be overstated.
"This suggestion that the RTI amendment weakens the right to access public information is in my view a red herring," he said.
He argued that the amendment does not prevent public authorities from disclosing personal information when the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm.
"By way of the substitution, personal information cannot be given to citizens as a matter of right. This does not, however, stop a public authority from allowing access to information (even personal information) if the public interest in disclosure outweighs the harm," he said.
Arora, on the other hand, believes the amendment substantially weakens the express public-interest protection previously available under the RTI Act.
He pointed to cases involving recruitment records or alleged favouritism in government departments, where information could reveal corruption involving public money but may now be denied under the broader personal-information exemption.
He also questioned why the earlier public-interest qualification was removed if authorities could continue to disclose information after weighing competing interests.
Could government powers affect journalistic sources?
The DNPA has also questioned provisions that give the government powers to seek information and restrict access to certain information.
Section 36 empowers the Centre to call for information from Data Fiduciaries or intermediaries for specified purposes. The association has argued that the provision could affect the confidentiality of information held by news organisations.
Journalists often depend on confidential sources, including whistleblowers and individuals who share information about alleged corruption, corporate wrongdoing or administrative irregularities.
The possibility of sensitive information being sought by the government, the association argues, could discourage people from sharing information with journalists.
This could have implications for investigative reporting, particularly when sources fear that their identities or communications may be exposed.
Another provision under challenge is Section 37, which empowers the government to direct the blocking of access to information in specified circumstances.
The association has questioned the scope of these powers and the safeguards available against their possible misuse.
The broader concern is whether provisions intended to protect personal information could also create restrictions on the circulation of news and information.
Is the Data Protection Board independent?
The composition and functioning of the Data Protection Board of India have also come under scrutiny.
The Board is expected to serve as the principal adjudicatory institution under the law. It will examine complaints, conduct inquiries and determine penalties against organisations that fail to comply with the framework.
However, questions have been raised about the government's role in the appointment of its members and the extent of its institutional independence.
Under the notified rules, the selection process for the chairperson and members involves a search-cum-selection committee comprising senior government officials and government-nominated experts.
The DNPA has challenged provisions concerning the Board, including Sections 18 and 19 of the Act and Rule 17 of the Rules.
The concern is that an institution responsible for adjudicating disputes involving both private organisations and government departments should have adequate independence from the executive.
Government agencies themselves process large amounts of personal information while implementing welfare schemes and providing public services. This makes the independence of the regulatory institution an important aspect of the data protection framework.
What has the government said?
The Centre has defended the legislation, maintaining that its primary objective is to protect citizens' privacy and regulate organisations that collect and process personal information.
Union electronics and information technology Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw has rejected suggestions that the law is intended to restrict journalistic freedom.
On October 29, Vaishnaw said that freedom of the press was constitutionally guaranteed and that the government had no intention of affecting it.
He also indicated that editors and media professionals could engage with the government to discuss their concerns.
The government's position is that the obligations under the legislation are primarily directed at Data Fiduciaries, such as banks, telecom companies and insurance providers, rather than journalists as a category.
In a report published on October 31, The Times of India quoted senior MeitY officials as saying that the Centre was open to changing the rules and, if necessary, the law itself to ensure that the framework did not become an impediment for journalists and media organisations.
Officials maintained that journalists and media houses do not fall within the category of Data Fiduciaries merely because they undertake reporting activities.
They also indicated that exemptions could be incorporated into the rules to address concerns over journalistic work.
Arora, however, believes government assurances alone cannot provide adequate protection.
"Assurances must be backed by statutory provisions and enforceable laws and rules," he said.
He argued that an express exemption would offer a stronger legal foundation for independent journalists and digital publishers, rather than leaving the matter dependent on administrative assurances.
When will the law come into effect fully?
Although the DPDP Rules were notified in November 2025, the government has provided a phased implementation timeline to allow organisations to prepare for compliance.
According to the enforcement timeline published by MeitY, certain institutional provisions, including those relating to the establishment of the Data Protection Board, came into force in November 2025.
The amendment to Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act also came into effect as part of the initial phase.
Other provisions, including the main obligations governing the processing of personal data, are scheduled to come into force 18 months after the November 13, 2025 notification. This places the key implementation date at May 13, 2027.
The transition period is intended to give organisations time to establish consent mechanisms, strengthen security systems and put procedures in place to comply with the law.
For news publishers, however, the legal uncertainty is likely to remain until the Supreme Court examines the challenge and the government clarifies whether additional exemptions will be introduced.
What happens next?
The Supreme Court issued notice to the Centre on October 27 after hearing the DNPA's challenge. A bench comprising Chief Justice of India Surya Kant and Justices Joymalya Bagchi and V Mohana agreed to examine the petition and listed the matter for November 17.
The court did not grant an interim stay on the challenged provisions without hearing the government's response.
The Centre will now have to respond to the questions raised by the association, including the absence of a specific journalistic exemption, the amendment to the RTI Act and the powers granted to the government under the legislation.
The government has also indicated that it is willing to consider changes if required.
The outcome could have implications beyond news organisations. It may help determine how privacy rights, access to public information and the freedom to investigate are balanced under India's digital regulatory framework.
The larger question: Can privacy and public interest coexist?
The debate over the DPDP Act reflects a difficult balance between two important principles.
On one hand, individuals should have control over their personal information. Financial details, health records, identity documents and private communications should not be freely collected, shared or used without appropriate safeguards.
On the other, access to information and the ability to investigate matters of public interest are essential to accountability. Journalism and the RTI framework often require the examination of information that may be personal in nature but has wider public significance.
The challenge, therefore, is not simply about choosing between privacy and press freedom. It is about creating safeguards that protect both without allowing one to become an obstacle to the other.
The Supreme Court's examination of the law will be important in determining how these competing interests are reconciled.
For citizens, the implications go beyond newsrooms and technology companies. They concern how much control individuals have over their personal information, how easily they can access information about public institutions and how effectively those in positions of authority can be held accountable.
As India moves towards a more data-driven economy, the task before policymakers is to ensure that stronger privacy protections do not come at the cost of transparency and the public's right to know.

Exclusive: Gujarat Police flagged one URL every six minutes through Sahyog Portal, RTI reveals

Media Nama: National: Saturday, 7^th November 2026.

On average, the Gujarat Police flagged one URL every six minutes through the Centre’s censorship facilitator, the Sahyog Portal, possibly since its launch in October 2024, according to a Right to Information (RTI) reply shared with MediaNama. The person who filed the RTI application has requested anonymity.
According to the RTI reply reviewed by MediaNama, the Gujarat Police issued 5,358 takedown notices, covering 190,633 URLs, to “all intermediaries” through the Centre’s Sahyog Portal over the past two years, possibly since October 2024, when the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) launched the portal. However, the reply does not specify a cut-off date and states that the figures are accurate “to date”. The reply was received on October 28, 2026.
This means that, on average:

• Around 261 URLs were flagged per day, equivalent to roughly one URL every six minutes.
• Around 7.34 notices were issued per day.
• Each notice covered around 36 URLs.

For comparison, in April 2025, The Indian Express, citing another RTI reply, reported that the MHA’s Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) had issued 130 content takedown notices between October 2024 and April 8, 2025. This translates to approximately 0.69 notices per day, compared with Gujarat Police’s average of 7.3 notices per day, a rate 10.6 times higher. While the figures cover different reporting periods and authorities, the comparison illustrates the scale at which Gujarat Police has used the Sahyog Portal.
The RTI reply, dated October 28, 2026, followed a second appeal to the Cyber Centre of Excellence, which operates under the Office of the Inspector General of Police, Gujarat.
What was asked:
The RTI application asked the Gujarat Home Department to disclose the total number of takedown notices issued to intermediaries under Section 79(3)(b) of the Information Technology (IT) Act or Rule 3(1)(d) of the IT Rules, 2021. It also sought copies of these notices and specifically asked how many had been sent through the Sahyog Portal.
The application was filed with the Gujarat Home Department on June 17, 2026. It was transferred to the Cyber Centre of Excellence following an order by the First Appellate Authority and was finally answered on October 28, 2026.
Center’s Sahyog Portal itself doesn’t hold takedown records, reveals another RTI reply
In another RTI reply to MediaNama, the Ministry of Home Affairs’ Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), which operates the portal, said it does not maintain records of notices issued through it. I4C said that these records are held by State and Union Territory police departments. Gujarat has now disclosed an aggregate figure without citing any RTI exemption.
This could mean that individual State police departments should also be able to disclose the number of takedown notices issued through the Sahyog Portal. MediaNama will file RTI applications with each State police department and publish the responses as and when they are received.
Brief context on Sahyog Portal:
The MHA’s I4C created the portal to automate notices issued under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act. In a submission to the Karnataka High Court, the government said the portal displays each agency’s total requests, the content taken down, and the number of closed and pending requests.
“As per screenshots attached with the Government’s response, the portal contains a dashboard which shows Central ministries/departments along with States, and the total number of requests they have sent out. It also shows them the total pieces of content that platforms have taken down, the number of requests closed and the number of requests pending. The dashboard also provides a platform-wide breakdown of requests and the status of said requests.
Besides this, agencies have the option to generate a takedown notice and simply select the Act/Section under which a piece of content is unlawful.” – MediaNama reporting on Sahyog Portal
X challenged the portal, arguing that the government uses it to bypass the safeguards under Section 69A, which governs blocking orders. The Karnataka High Court upheld the portal. The Supreme Court has since stayed all previous High Court judgments in the case.

Karnataka High Court Quashes Case Against RTI Activist Snehamayi Krishna Booked For Shouting At Govt Official

Live Law: Karnataka: Saturday, 7^th November 2026.
The Karnataka High Court on Friday quashed First Information Report (FIR) and all further proceedings initiated against RTI activist Snehamayi Krishna, registered on a complaint made by Roopa M J who works as Secretary of the Sri Chamundeshwari development Authority, accusing Krishna of obstructing her in doing government duty and shouting at her.

A single judge bench of Justice Rajesh Rai K, allowed the petition filed by Krishna and quashed the offence registered against him in 2024 for the offences punishable under Sections 132 (assault or criminal force to deter a public servant from duty) and Section 351 (criminal intimidation) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhitha.
The court said “It can be gathered that the complaint is filed by R2 (Roopa) as a counterblast to the complaint filed against her by the petitioner.”
As per the complaint filed by Roopa with the Krishnaraja police in Mysuru on December 14, 2024, while she was discharging her duty at her office, Krishna had entered her office along with the police and the police had informed her that Krishna has given a complaint alleging that sarees worth lakhs of rupees, donated as offerings to the deity Chamundeshwari, were being misappropriated.
It was alleged that at that time Krishna who was standing besides the police had in a loud voice threatened her and allegedly said that he would teach her a lesson and he has already filed a complaint against then Chief Minister, Siddaramaiah.
Senior Advocate Arun Shyam appearing for the petitioner argued that on going through the complaint averments it can be seen that absolutely no offence has been made out against the petitioner. Further there is a two days delay in lodging the complaint and no explanation is given by the complaint for it. Further, it was argued that the present complaint is filed as a counterblast to the complaint filed by petitioner against Roopa.
The government advocate opposed the plea saying that the investigation is at nascent stage and complaint averment disclose that petitioner had threatened the complainant There is also CCTv footage, about the incident.
The bench noted that the complaint does not disclose that petitioner made an assault or used criminal force or threat with an intention to outrage her modesty. The only allegation is that the petitioner had in a loud voice said he will teach her a lesson.
Referring to the Apex court judgment in the case of K Dhananjaya Versus Cabinet secretary SLP 5905/2022 wherein it has been held that the shouting and threatening the staff, will not amount to any assault as described in Section 353 of IPC and there must be a positive act by the offender to attract the offence, the high court said,
“Admittedly there is no criminal force or assault is made by the petitioner. As such Section 132 of BNS is not attracted. Admittedly, there are no abusive words used by the petitioner against the complaint and he has not threatened the respondent with dire consequences.”
Noting that there was a delay of two days in lodging the complaint against the petitioner, the bench said, “I am of the considered view that entire chargesheet allegations and complaint averments taken on face value no offence is made out against the petitioner. As such the continuation of the proceedings would amount to abuse of process of law and FIR and further proceedings are quashed against the petitioner.”

TN man files 97 RTI pleas for ‘information’ on ex-girlfriend; info commissioner warns him of ban

Times of India: Chennai: Saturday, 7^th November 2026.
“Is my ex-girlfriend in a relationship with another person?” “How many men did she cheat on? Is she married? Where does she live and work?” This is how a Villupuram-based youth bombarded the police department and then filed at least 1,887 queries under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.

Livid at the 97 RTI petitions containing 1,887 questions, information commissioner V P R Elamparithi rejected them and issued a stern warning to the appellant, A Santhosh of Villupuram, who had the audacity to appear in person before the state information commission to put forth his ‘arguments’ on Tuesday.
“We will be forced to send you to undergo medical counselling if further such mindless RTI pleas in contempt of the Act are filed,” the commissioner said in his detailed order dated Thursday.
Additional superintendent of Cuddalore district police, who is the public information officer, informed the commission that Santhosh was in a relationship with his collegemate in 2024 and they broke up after passing out of college. But he harassed her through phone calls and social media, after which she attempted suicide and was admitted to govt hospital for treatment in June 2025. The PIO also informed the commission that the girl had lodged a harassment complaint against Santhosh and furnished a copy of her complaint. After police inquired them by issuing a CSR, Santhosh started badgering the police station with RTI queries. In one of the pleas, he asked 179 queries which asked 68 questions seeking CCTV camera footage of certain dates, while other queries were surrounding the girl’s personal life, including whether she was alive and how many men she was in a relationship with.
Recording the submission, commissioner Elamparithi said the RTI Act is a powerful weapon to a common man and has been effectively used to expose corruption and ensure individual’s right over the system. “But there can’t be a better plea than this to highlight how the RTI Act has been abused since the petitioner has gone to the extent of seeking a photo of the girl concerned under the RTI Act,” the commissioner noted.
Following submission from Santhosh that he would approach the court to seek justice, the commission closed the petition.